Emergency Medicine Exam 1 Practice

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• To anesthetize the yellow area at the chin, which nerve should be targeted?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does each leg (including both front and back) represent?
• Exposure to gas heat, smoke inhalation, acidosis or coma with flu-like symptoms progressing to coma indicates which poisoning?
• Which of the following is NOT typically considered an H or T cause of cardiac arrest?
• SVR stands for which hemodynamic term?
• Which opioid is primarily excreted renally?
• Platelet transfusion is indicated in disseminated intravascular coagulation when platelets are within which range if there is active bleeding?
• What is the initial step in rapid sequence intubation?
• Which item is NOT part of the big 6 must do's/asks when evaluating back pain?
• Why should aggressive rubbing be avoided in hypothermia treatment?
• Lip wounds require antibiotics under which circumstance?
• How can the diagnosis of hypoglycemia be made?
• What is the primary purpose of a neuromuscular blocking agent during RSI?
• Which opioid does not release histamine?
• In a pregnant patient with suspected kidney stones, which imaging modality is preferred?
• Hypercalcemia is most commonly seen with which cancers?
• During the straight leg raise test, a positive result is best indicated by pain occurring at what range of hip flexion?
• What type of burn is described by blistering with exposed dermis pale white/yellow, with no cap refill and absent pain sensation in deeper areas?
• What are the initial management priorities for a burn patient?
• Before performing a digital block, what physical exam should you perform?
• What is the treatment of choice for a pathologic fracture?
• What is the initial management for testicular torsion?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the perineum contribute?
• Which statement best describes the indications for dialysis in renal failure?
• What is the term for stones located specifically in the ureter?
• Which color code indicates that patients are sick but care can be delayed 45-60 minutes?
• Which of the following is NOT accurate about the straight leg raise test for disc herniation?
• Which chest X-ray findings are commonly associated with cardiogenic shock?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect cardiac function?
• Which finding is most consistent with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• What is the range of the Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• This opioid can be given via IV, IM, PO, SQ and has a 1-3 min onset that lasts for 4-6 hours; it is metabolized in the liver and excreted renally.
• Which plasma-derived product is used to correct coagulation defects in bleeding patients with multiple deficiencies?
• What is the typical healing time for a back sprain/strain?
• If penile fracture is suspected, which specialist should be consulted for definitive management?
• Cryoprecipitate contains which combination of factors?
• Back pain with point tenderness to percussion should raise concern for which diagnosis?
• Which of the following is part of the initial management of anaphylactic shock?
• What venous pH level is considered a treatment target in DKA?
• Which description corresponds to 4th-degree frostbite?
• What is the normal range for the anion gap?
• For an infected dorsal hand laceration being treated on an outpatient basis, which antibiotic regimen is appropriate?
• Which therapy is considered definitive for decompression sickness?
• What insulin infusion rate is used in DKA management?
• What is the most common cause of adrenal insufficiency?
• Which of the following conditions can cause cauda equina syndrome?
• Pyelonephritis is an infection of which anatomical structures?
• In DKA, how is potassium status typically described?
• Which of the following items constitute the 'big 6' must do's/asks when evaluating back pain?
• In patients with back pain and a history of IV drug use, which diagnosis is particularly important to consider?
• As part of outpatient management for less severe burns, wounds should be kept covered from which exposure?
• Ejection fraction is SV/EDV. What does EDV stand for?
• Which laboratory tests are commonly ordered in suspected kidney stones?
• Eyelid wounds should be referred if they involve which structures?
• Which technique is preferred for anesthetizing a facial laceration?
• The medical term for survival after submersion with asphyxia is near drowning.
• Which bite is associated with a target lesion after a pinprick sensation with induration, erythema, and blistering?
• Which statement about decompression sickness is true?
• What is the standard treatment for DKA?
• NSAIDs like aspirin, naproxen, and ibuprofen are safe for children after what age?
• Which of the following is not typically part of the initial management of neurogenic shock?
• Which motor response corresponds to a score of 6 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• When can an alcoholic ketoacidosis patient be discharged?
• What is the term for acute life-threatening adrenal insufficiency?
• Injury with high voltage electrical exposure is commonly associated with which condition requiring monitoring for rhabdomyolysis?
• What is the cut-off time mentioned for attempting detorsion to salvage the testicle?
• Gas bubbles forming in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusion and delayed inflammatory response describe which diving-related condition?
• In the initial assessment of a near-drowning patient, which of the following steps is recommended?
• 1% lidocaine solution contains how many milligrams per milliliter?
• Which ancillary studies should be ordered for suspected cardiogenic shock?
• For a laceration containing a foreign body, which closure approach is preferred?
• Which bacterium is commonly associated with cat bite infections?
• What is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which brand name corresponds to hydrocodone?
• After evaluation for kidney stones, which statement describes discharge planning?
• Which option is NOT a red flag for cancer in back pain?
• Which statement about acetaminophen is true?
• What is the reversal agent for benzodiazepines?
• This topical local anesthetic can be applied directly to intact skin.
• In this thrombotic microangiopathy, what two hematologic abnormalities are expected?
• Chillblains are characterized by edema, erythema and cyanosis appearing up to how many hours after exposure?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect bronchial smooth muscle?
• Face sutures in place for _ days.
• The metabolic acidosis state due to inadequate nutritional intake in chronic alcohol use is called what?
• In the management of high-pressure puncture wounds, which statement is true?
• Which of the following is listed as an admission criterion for urinary stone management?
• Which laboratory studies are typically obtained in evaluating cardiogenic shock?
• Where is tenderness typically located in epididymitis?
• What is the treatment for balanoposthitis?
• Which antibiotic regimen is appropriate for epididymo-orchitis in sexually active men?
• Which of the following is an H or T cause of cardiac arrest?
• EMTALA applies to which patients presenting to the ED?
• Dysbarism occurs due to pressure changes during which activities?
• Which intervention may be required in high-voltage electrical injuries due to potential deep tissue damage and rhabdomyolysis?
• Which item is included in a standard procedure note?
• Which statement is true regarding chemical burns from alkali or reactive metals (sodium, potassium, calcium, lithium)?
• If a patient has weakness of quadriceps extension and diminished knee reflex, which nerve root is compressed?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?
• What is the angle range associated with a positive straight leg raise for disc herniation?
• Opioids cause presynaptic ____ channels to close and postsynaptic ____ channels to open.
• In burn management, why is maintaining body warmth important?
• What is the medical term for stones in the urinary tract?
• Which finding would support a positive straight leg raise test in a patient with back pain?
• Noninvasive ventilation is an alternative to intubation in which scenario?
• What is the immediate intervention for an obstructed airway?
• What is the initial management for back sprain/strain?
• Which statement best describes the management approach for suspected cauda equina syndrome?
• Which product is commonly used to replace multiple coagulation factors in bleeding due to liver disease?
• Hyponatremia with sodium greater than 125 mEq/L is typically treated with which measure?
• Which medication is a cornerstone in treating myxedema coma?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does each arm contribute?
• Which of the following are common opioid side effects?
• If a wound is high risk for infection, when should antibiotics be started?
• Which lab value is markedly elevated in rhabdomyolysis?
• Which statement best describes anemia treatment when transfusion is indicated?
• In resuscitation, the DEs stand for which two components?
• What is the reversal agent for opioids?
• What is the recommended initial treatment for adrenal crisis?
• Hypothermia is defined as a body temperature less than what value?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag of back pain?
• What is the recommended management for high-pressure puncture wounds?
• Which are clinical features of platelet defects?
• Which statement is true about noninvasive positive-pressure ventilation modalities?
• Which of the following is a potential complication of rhabdomyolysis besides renal failure?
• Which description corresponds to 2nd-degree frostbite?
• Which term denotes the stage of shock in which compensatory mechanisms maintain perfusion and blood pressure?
• In a patient with back pain and a history of IV drug use, which differential diagnoses should be considered?
• What is the IV dose for morphine sulfate?
• Which test should be documented when evaluating lower-extremity injuries?
• What is the minimal urine output that a burn patient should have?
• Severe hypothyroidism with decreased mental status and hypothermia precipitated by infection, cold exposure, or trauma describes which condition?
• Which statement best describes the typical progression of symptoms after smoke exposure leading to carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Balanoposthitis is inflammation of which structures?
• In cardiogenic shock with pulmonary congestion, when should diuretics be used?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the first dorsal web space?
• In the initial management of diabetic ketoacidosis, what is the first therapeutic priority?
• During resuscitation with a pulse, how often should breaths be delivered?
• During laryngoscopy, the BURP maneuver applies pressure in which direction set to improve the view?
• Hyponatremia with sodium less than 125 mEq/L is treated with which therapy?
• Scalp sutures in place for ___ days.
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation is best described as which of the following?
• In neurogenic shock, which combination of findings is most characteristic?
• What is a common initial treatment for hypercalcemia?
• The BURP maneuver improves the laryngoscopic view of the glottic opening by applying pressure in which direction set?
• What does the AVPU scale stand for in neurological assessment?
• What is the ultimate goal of wound management?
• Which diagnostic test should be obtained for every patient with DKA or HHS to assess for electrolyte disturbances and potential underlying causes such as myocardial infarction?
• Which of the following is an indication to remove a foreign body from a wound?
• What is the fifth component of the ABCDEs in resuscitation?
• If back pain with neurological deficit, what imaging would be best?
• What is the most common cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Which benzodiazepine is associated with amnesia and has an onset of 3-5 minutes, declining over 30-40 minutes?
• Which non-opioid drug has onset 30 seconds to 2 minutes and is a muscle relaxant that can cause phlebitis when given IV?
• To anesthetize the green area near the medial eyebrow, which nerve should be targeted?
• The 1984 death of an 18-year-old female in a New York hospital leading to changes in medical training is commonly known as which case?
• In the eye-opening component of the Glasgow Coma Scale, which description corresponds to the highest score?
• For anesthesia of a facial region during laceration repair, which technique is described as appropriate?
• During anaphylaxis, how does histamine affect vascular smooth muscle?
• What is the preferred method for protecting the airway in emergency airway management?
• Which description best fits a back strain or sprain?
• What is recommended in the treatment of hypothermia?
• In suspected penile fracture, which diagnostic study should be ordered to evaluate urethral injury?
• What is the first-line treatment for adults with anaphylactic shock?
• What term describes a direct venom effect presenting with GI disturbances and bronchospasm?
• During Parkland fluid resuscitation, which parameter is used to gauge adequacy of resuscitation?
• Painful inflammatory lesions typically affecting the ears, hands, and feet from chronic exposure to intermittent damp conditions, presenting with edema, erythema and cyanosis up to 12 hours after exposure, are called what?
• Which organism is commonly involved in hand wound infections?
• Which items are included in the general treatment plan for cardiogenic shock?
• Which imaging study is used to diagnose SVC syndrome?
• Uncomplicated UTI meaning
• Which opioid has a toxic metabolite that may cause seizures?
• In management of alcoholic ketoacidosis, which IV fluid regimen is preferred?
• In alcoholic ketoacidosis, which agent should be given first during treatment?
• Anaphylactic shock is best defined as which?
• A class I hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which medication is used IV for SVT if non-pharmacologic maneuvers fail?
• Which frostbite degree is associated with hemorrhagic bullae and skin necrosis?
• This local anesthetic is commonly used and has an onset of 2-5 minutes and lasts for 2-3 hours.
• Which statement accurately describes the two broad categories of platelet defects?
• Which of the following is a sign/symptom of thyroid storm?
• Which items constitute a procedure note?
• A patient with sudden severe flank pain radiating to the groin most likely has which condition?
• In myxedema, what is the expected pattern of T3, T4, and TSH?
• Which step is NOT part of outpatient management for less severe burns?
• Which color code is used to indicate the highest priority for life-saving interventions?
• What are the three main sections of the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Death from laryngospasm and hypoxemia without aspiration.
• The nerve that provides sensation to the chin and lower lip and is targeted for mental area anesthesia is which?
• Which symptom cluster is typical of a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease?
• Which physiologic sign is commonly associated with pain and can be present in acute distress?
• What is the general approach to anemia treatment when transfusion is planned?
• What is the last step in wound evaluation, if needed?
• Which rare blood disorder is characterized by widespread microvascular thrombosis causing thrombocytopenia and hemolytic anemia?
• Which skin finding is typical in neurogenic shock?
• Initial management for decompression sickness.
• Painful cramps in heavily exercised skeletal muscle are characteristic of which heat-related condition?
• What is the Parkland burn formula and how is it administered?
• Bone metastases most commonly respond to which therapy?
• Which statement best describes the overall clinical utility of the straight leg raise test?
• What is the distinctive feathering marking seen on lightning strike victims?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the index finger?
• A class IV hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Under what condition is primary closure of a cat bite wound considered?
• Who was the first developer of academic emergency medicine?
• Which of the following is included in the treatment plan for trench foot and chillblains?
• Which of the following is NOT typically used in the initial management of electrical injuries?
• Which nonpharmacologic measure is part of the initial management for epididymo-orchitis?
• What is the recommended treatment approach for Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Which describes quantitative platelet defects?
• What does ABCs stand for in emergency management?
• What is the primary goal of Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)?
• RSI stands for what in airway management?
• What size suture can uncomplicated eyelid lacerations be closed with?
• Elevated lactate is most commonly associated with which scenario?
• If a straight leg raise test is negative, what is the most appropriate clinical interpretation?
• Which of the following is a common early sign of hypothermia?
• In outpatient burn care, when should blisters be debrided?
• What finding constitutes a positive straight leg raise test?
• Which glucocorticoid is given intravenously in adrenal crisis?
• Should ice be applied to burns?
• Which description corresponds to 1st-degree frostbite (frostnip)?
• What is an appropriate initial treatment for superior vena cava syndrome presenting with neurologic deficit?
• What is the treatment for post-renal renal failure?
• Which of the following is an example of a cause of cardiogenic shock?
• Which pair of vasoconstrictors can be administered with local anesthetic to prolong the block and reduce bleeding?
• Which is a first-line non-pharmacologic treatment for stable supraventricular tachycardia?
• Uncomplicated UTI features
• A positive straight leg raise test most commonly suggests herniation at which disc levels?
• Which sequence correctly lists the general steps of rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?
• Which statement correctly describes correcting serum sodium in DKA?
• Urethritis is commonly associated with which clinical feature?
• Which burn depth includes charring with involvement of epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and sometimes bone?
• Which lab finding would strongly lead you to the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis?
• Cardiogenic shock is shock caused by
• What is the ketone status typically seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• During resuscitation, which area is evaluated first?
• How is the patient positioned to perform the straight leg raise test?
• Which feature is typical of epididymitis?
• What verbal response corresponds to a score of 5 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
• Which of the following is a recommended frostbite treatment?
• Which symptom combination is most characteristic of pyelonephritis?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with cystitis?
• In a basic triage scheme, which color tag corresponds to third priority and allows patients to wait several hours for treatment?
• Which of the following is part of the treatment for intrinsic renal failure?
• Which puncture wounds are eligible for low-pressure irrigation?
• Which items are important to document when examining a wound?
• Which tool is used to quantify neurological status during resuscitation?
• Injection of an anesthetic into and around a nerve or group of nerves is called a?
• In medical terminology, infection of the urethra is called what?
• Which sign is positive in epididymitis, indicating relief of pain with scrotal elevation?
• Which patient requires admission after a hypoglycemic episode?
• The topical anesthetic Emla consists of which two drugs?
• In rhabdomyolysis due to exertional causes, which patient is typically considered safe for discharge?
• Which class corresponds to the greatest blood loss?
• In suspected renal failure due to a vascular cause, which imaging feature helps assess perfusion?
• Hyponatremia is a common electrolyte disturbance seen in which condition?
• Which sequence correctly lists the steps of evaluating a wound?
• Which local anesthetic has an onset around 5 minutes and a duration of about 6 hours?
• What is the treatment for hypoglycemia if no IV access is available?
• This results from breathing compressed air for excessive depth and time while diving and causes excessive bubble formation in tissue and circulation causing acute occlusive and delayed inflammatory response.
• Where should you begin suturing for complicated lesions of the lips?
• Which blood product contains all coagulation factors and fibrinogen?
• If outpatient treatment for pyelonephritis fails, which antibiotic combination is recommended?
• In trench foot, feet may be painful after rewarming for how long?
• If back pain with suspected tumor, fracture or infection, what imaging would you order?
• Midazolam is marketed under which brand name?
• Cryoprecipitate is used to replace which factors?
• In which scenario should a urine culture be obtained for suspected UTI?
• Leftward shift on the oxygen affinity curve would cause what change in oxygen unloading to tissues?
• What is the essential initial treatment component for heat emergencies?
• Which clinical scenario would most support ordering a straight leg raising test to evaluate possible disc herniation?
• Which statement is true about frostbite?
• Which statement about diabetic ketoacidosis is true?
• Which airway cannot be used in a conscious patient due to gag reflex?
• Which burn type increases risk of death and is important to evaluate for?
• In Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS), which osmolality level is typically observed?
• Decompensated shock occurs when
• Which of the following is NOT listed among the common predictors for difficulty with bag-valve mask ventilation?
• A commonly used local anesthetic has an onset of about 5 minutes and lasts around 6 hours. Which agent is this?
• Which routes are appropriate for morphine administration?
• What is the purpose of placing a Foley catheter in burn management?
• Severe hyperglycemia without significant ketoacidosis is best described as which condition?
• A right shift on the oxygen affinity curve would result in what change to P50?
• Neurogenic shock is defined as shock that occurs after injury to the spinal cord with disruption of sympathetic outflow, resulting in unopposed vagal tone. What is the name of this condition?
• What is the treatment for hypoglycemia with altered mental status?
• If no pulse is detected within how many seconds should CPR be initiated in an emergency?
• This opioid is synthetic, has immediate onset and lasts 30 minutes; can be given as a lollipop and does not release histamine.
• What is the initial treatment for hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock?
• Near-drowning disposition when GCS is greater than 13 and oxygen saturation over 95%?
• A left shift on the oxygen affinity curve is associated with which changes in pH, temperature, and CO2?
• Which opioid is primarily given IV and PO and has an onset of 5 minutes and peaks in 5-15 minutes; duration greater than 5 hours?
• What is the general local reaction to bites and stings?
• Which blood product is primarily used to replace fibrinogen in bleeding disorders?
• Back pain with major motor weakness should raise concern for which cause?
• Which statement reflects the implication of a negative straight leg raise test in suspected disc herniation?
• What is the purpose of using pressure monitoring devices in cardiogenic shock?
• Which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the index finger?
• Initial treatment for human bites causing lacerations?
• What imaging is emergently needed when cauda equina syndrome is suspected?
• Which of the following is included in the management of neurogenic shock?
• Which of the following statements about hypothermia management is true?
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation involves activation of which systems?
• For suspected SVC syndrome with neurologic deficit, which treatment is indicated?
• Which statement best describes the diagnostic criteria for diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Where should you begin suturing for lesions of the nose?
• What is included in the management of cat bites?
• A medical condition that results from pressure changes that occur when a person descends in water or ascends in altitude.
• Which of the following is a sign of anemia?
• Cryoprecipitate is derived from which product?
• EMTALA is colloquially described as which law?
• Which of the following is NOT a precipitating factor for thyroid storm?
• Which statement accurately describes electrical injuries from alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC)?
• Which is an example of a qualitative platelet defect?
• Which of the following is a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?
• IV immunoglobulins (IVIG) are used for which conditions?
• During the straight leg raise test, the patient is positioned how?
• What is the treatment for bed bug bites?
• Which symptoms may occur during a delayed reaction to an insect bite or sting?
• In neurogenic shock, the severity of symptoms is related to the level of spinal injury, with higher injuries producing more severe effects. Which option best reflects this statement?
• Which presentation best suggests cauda equina syndrome?
• A class III hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• Which brand name corresponds to hydromorphone?
• What is the study of choice for evaluating renal failure?
• Which respiratory pattern is classically associated with diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Thyroid storm is a life-threatening form of thyrotoxicosis most commonly seen in patients with which condition?
• What is the recommended treatment for dog bites?
• What suture size is appropriate for lower-extremity wounds?
• Which insect bite causes intense pruritus with burrows concentrated on web spaces, fingers, and toes?
• Why is bupivacaine added to lidocaine for local anesthesia?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the back constitute?
• What is the most common cause of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease?
• Which is NOT listed as a risk factor for rhabdomyolysis?
• Which maneuvers are included in opening the airway for an unconscious patient with suspected airway obstruction?
• Back pain with unexpected anal sphincter laxity suggests which serious condition?
• What term describes self-limited edema that can occur with initial warmth exposure?
• Survival following asphyxia due to submerging.
• Escharotomy is performed to relieve constriction from burned tissue in which area to aid breathing?
• Which of the following are common clinical features of Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Burn victims requiring transfer to a specialty burn unit are typically those with which condition?
• Hyponatremia with sodium less than 120 mEq/L is treated with which therapy?
• Which of the following is NOT a red flag for cancer in a patient with back pain?
• A right shift on the oxygen affinity curve is associated with which changes in pH, temperature, and PCO2?
• Which statement best describes blood pressure in shock?
• What is the first step in wound evaluation?
• Which laboratory pattern is typically seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS)?
• Which combination defines heat stroke?
• In suspected hypothermia, which temperature measurement is used to assess core temperature?
• Ejection fraction is defined as which ratio?
• Which analgesic is administered as a gas with a rapid onset, peaks in 1-2 minutes, must be delivered with oxygen, and is used for pediatric populations outside the USA?
• In adults and children over 1 year, which pulse site is checked first when assessing circulation?
• In a patient with sulfonylurea–induced hypoglycemia, what is the recommended initial management?
• In hypoglycemia due to long-acting sulfonylureas, what may be needed after initial dextrose therapy?
• Which symptom can indicate hypoglycemia?
• Disseminated intravascular coagulation is most often triggered by which category of conditions?
• Which testing scenario includes a general antibody screen but does not attempt crossmatching for donor cells in urgent transfusion?
• What type of burn is described by red, painful skin with no blistering, involving only the epidermis?
• Percocet contains which opioid?
• Which test is used to document a lower-extremity injury?
• Which of the following is a red flag for back pain that may indicate infection or serious pathology?
• Which burn depth is described as destruction of epidermis and dermis with exposed dermis, very painful?
• When evaluating wounds of the upper extremity, which steps are appropriate to include in the assessment?
• For chemical burns caused by sodium, potassium, calcium, or lithium, which first-aid measure is preferred?
• Which statement lists the types of anemia that would have a normal MCV according to the material?
• Which of the following is included in the initial management steps for hemorrhagic shock?
• Under what condition can a patient with hypoglycemia be discharged from the ED?
• Bone metastases typically originate from which primary sites?
• Which nerve is indicated by sensation testing at the first dorsal web space of the hand?
• In cauda equina syndrome, which symptom tends to present early?
• What is the recommended epinephrine dose for adults with anaphylaxis?
• Which presentation is classic for urinary stones?
• In insect bite or sting reactions, is the severity greater with quicker or more delayed onset?
• During DKA treatment, how often should labs be monitored and neuro checks performed?
• Which laboratory marker is used to confirm carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which statement about potassium in diabetic ketoacidosis is accurate?
• Prickly heat is caused by blockage of sweat pores. Which option lists the correct condition in the ordering used here?
• Acetaminophen is considered safe for children older than how many weeks?
• Which organisms commonly infect human bite wounds?
• When evaluating upper-extremity wounds, which of the following statements is true regarding patient history and physical examination?
• Which induction agent is preferred for a patient who is hypotensive or has bronchospasm?
• Infection of the kidney and renal pelvis is called
• Which physiologic sign is commonly associated with pain?
• Which of the following is an oral opioid analgesic?
• Which statement best describes the management of tendon lacerations?
• Which antibiotics are listed for dog bite infections?
• In adults, what percent of total body surface area does the whole head represent?
• Which laboratory test is typically used to evaluate anemia?
• What should be done in the ED for paraphimosis?
• Which areas are sites where life-threatening hemorrhage can occur?
• What is the initial compensatory method during shock?
• To anesthetize the blue area near the eye, which nerve should be targeted?
• Soft tissue injury from prolonged exposure to nonfreezing cold and moisture with pale, mottled, pulseless and numb feet that does not rapidly improve with rewarming and may be painful for 2-3 days after rewarming is known as what?
• The smaller the suture, the _____ throws needed to form a secure knot.
• Which technique provides the most reliable immediate confirmation of endotracheal tube placement?
• The condition characterized by skeletal muscle injury with necrosis and release of intracellular contents is called?
• Which management step is central to treating trench foot and chillblains?
• Which agent is listed as a vasopressor or inotrope for cardiogenic shock?
• Which measure describes the percentage of oxygen remaining in the blood returning to the lungs, typically sampled from the pulmonary artery via a pulmonary artery catheter?
• Which laboratory test is part of evaluating suspected pyelonephritis?
• Weak plantar flexion of the great toe and foot with an inability to walk on toes and a diminished ankle jerk indicates compression of which nerve root?
• Which condition causes pain that radiates from the buttock down the leg and can extend to the feet and toes?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the patient dorsiflexes the wrist?
• In the initial near-drowning evaluation, which test is routinely performed?
• Which insect bite is classically associated with immediate pain and paresthesia and a positive tap test?
• Which test is essential to evaluate suspected diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which statement describes airway management in suspected inhalation injury?
• What type of burn is described by blistering with exposed dermis red and moist and very painful?
• What is a first-line outpatient antibiotic option for pyelonephritis?
• In triage, which color denotes the first priority?
• In a patient with renal failure who is mild, has a clear cause, no complications, and access to follow-up care, what is the most appropriate disposition?
• What is the recommended approach to remove a wood splinter?
• Which treatment is included in the management of acute chest syndrome?
• Weak dorsiflexion of the great toe and foot with an inability to walk on the heels indicates compression of which nerve root?
• Infections of dorsal hand lacerations are most commonly caused by which organism?
• Which method is used to confirm endotracheal tube placement immediately after intubation?
• What is a potential limitation of the straight leg raise test when considering disc herniation?
• Indicators of poor prognosis following near drowning.
• Initial management steps for myxedema coma include which of the following?
• Which condition is associated with decreased vasomotor tone and peripheral pooling in poorly acclimatized individuals during heat exposure?
• In the workup for suspected hypothermia, which item is included?
• Which of the following are reperfusion strategies in cardiogenic shock?
• Which medication from the thyroid storm management group is an antithyroid drug?
• What is the recommended approach to cooling burns?
• IVIG is derived from which source?
• Which sign indicates airway involvement in burn patients?
• What is a recommended treatment approach for insect bites and stings that provoke a reaction?
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, how should sodium be corrected for hyperglycemia?
• Gradual onset pain and swelling of one or both testes with fever is most consistent with which condition?
• Mean arterial pressure is calculated as which of the following relationships?
• 1% lidocaine contains which of the following mg per mL?
• Which types of anemia would have a low MCV?
• Which action is related to temperature control as an exposure/environmental measure during resuscitation?
• Which of the following is a clinical feature of hypoglycemia?
• Which assessment is part of the work-up for lightning injuries?
• Which condition would warrant admission for a patient with a urinary stone?
• Balanoposthitis is most commonly found in which population?
• Which nerve is responsible for abduction and adduction of the fingers?
• Initial management of electrical injuries includes which of the following?
• Opioids are excreted primarily by which route?
• Which statement about dog bite infections is accurate?
• What is the maximum possible Glasgow Coma Scale score?
• What type of dressing is recommended for outpatient management of less severe burns?
• Which color code indicates a patient who is dead or likely to die?
• Back pain with fever should raise suspicion for which etiology?
• Which finding is not typical of cauda equina syndrome?
• What should you always inspect nose wounds for?
• Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease presents with which combination?
• What term describes circulatory insufficiency causing tissue hypoperfusion, metabolic acidosis, and decreased venous oxygen content?
• Pharmacologic therapies for hypothermia are ineffective below which core temperatures?
• In an emergency department, platelets should be considered for treatment under which criteria?
• Which combination of symptoms is commonly seen in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Which organ is primarily affected in HUS?
• What bicarbonate level is specified as a treatment goal in DKA?
• Which arrhythmia is commonly associated with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
• Which finding would indicate cauda equina syndrome in a patient with back pain?
• Which drug is a non-opioid benzodiazepine used as a muscle relaxant and can cause phlebitis when given IV?
• Which of the following is NOT among the factors that predict difficulty with bag-valve mask ventilation (BVM)?
• Where do nonopioid analgesics primarily exert their effect compared with opioids?
• Gastritis, pancreatitis, or hepatitis may accompany which metabolic state following heavy alcohol use?
• Which laboratory value supports the presence of metabolic acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis?
• In the management of hypovolemic/hemorrhagic shock, which option best describes an essential step?
• Which of the following is a cause of secondary adrenal insufficiency?
• Initial management of chemical burns includes which of the following?
• A common laboratory finding in pyelonephritis is which of the following?
• Which insect bite causes immediate pain and paresthesia with a positive tap test, and what is the treatment?
• In triage, which color denotes the second priority with care delayed 45-60 minutes?
• In a triage system, which level indicates that patients are dead or have a very poor chance of survival?
• Which of the following are clinical features of alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Discharge criteria for patients with urinary stones mainly include which condition?
• To anesthetize the red area near the cheek, which nerve should be targeted?
• Which findings are clinical indicators of inhalation injury?
• Neurogenic shock results from disruption of sympathetic outflow leading to unopposed parasympathetic activity. Which statement best describes this mechanism?
• Back pain with a positive straight-leg raise test most often indicates which diagnosis?
• Which is a clinical feature of renal failure?
• What is the most common causative agent of infection with puncture wounds?
• Which of the following is an initial step in treating an insect sting reaction?
• Acute chest syndrome in sickle cell disease is a pulmonary complication that is most often associated with which trigger?
• Cardiac output is calculated as which of the following?
• Which antibiotic option is listed for high-risk puncture wounds?
• Which insect can cause a sterile pustule that evolves over 6-24 hours and may cause necrosis and scarring?
• What imaging should be ordered for suspected testicular torsion?
• Which EKG finding is classically associated with hypothermia?
• Which condition is an example of a qualitative platelet defect?
• This opioid is discouraged due to large histamine release, toxic metabolite that may cause seizures, and can be fatal if given with an MAOI.
• Inability to reduce the proximal edematous foreskin distally over the glans is called?
• How is the anion gap calculated?
• Which laboratory value is important to measure for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which burn depth involves charring present, with epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and sometimes bone involved?
• Which pair of vasoconstrictors is commonly used with local anesthetic to prolong the block and decrease bleeding?
• Which disease is described by the triad of hemolytic anemia, acute kidney failure, and thrombocytopenia, often after bloody diarrhea due to E. coli?
• If alkalosis occurs with lower temperature and CO2, what shift on the O2 affinity curve occurs?
• Which type of laceration typically requires operative repair?
• What imaging study should be used to look for foreign bodies or bone destruction in an infected puncture wound?
• In suspected kidney stones, which imaging study is ordered?
• What is the composition of the majority of urinary stones?
• A decreased reticulocyte count in sickle cell disease most strongly suggests which complication?
• Inability to retract the foreskin is called?
• Which is a complication of rhabdomyolysis?
• Which labs and diagnostics should be ordered for thermal injuries?
• How would you describe the sensitivity of the straight leg raise test for detecting disc herniation?
• Which knot is described for tendon repair in the material?
• Which local anesthetic is used on the eyes and provides immediate results?
• What is the recommended management for viral orchitis?
• Which statement best describes decompensation in shock?
• Which finding is most consistent with testicular torsion?
• Which type of shock results from acute blood loss?
• What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
• Which description corresponds to 3rd-degree frostbite?
• In management of a septal hematoma, which approach is recommended?
• What is a key management step for thyroid storm?
• Which of the following is a treatment option for priapism?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the patient abducts the thumb?
• Which blood product has the highest oxygen-carrying capacity per unit and is used to increase hemoglobin?
• What is the recommended treatment for alcoholic ketoacidosis?
• Which of the following statements about blood products is true?
• Hepatotoxicity starts at which mg/kg/day with acetaminophen?
• Which finding is a red flag for back pain indicating possible nerve root involvement?
• Is isolated orchitis uncommon in adults and usually associated with epididymitis?
• Frostbite is classified by which factors?
• Delayed reactions to insect bites may include which combination of symptoms?
• Hypercalcemia is most commonly seen with which malignancies?
• Which of the following is a primary approach to treating disseminated intravascular coagulation?
• Never clip or shave which area during wound preparation?
• Match the hyponatremia level to its recommended treatment.
• Field blocks require lower concentrations of local anesthetic than nerve blocks.
• Hyponatremia is associated with which diagnosis?
• Which statement best summarizes the diagnostic utility of the straight leg raise test for disc herniation?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is evaluated when the digits are adducted and abducted?
• What is the term for pretransfusion testing that includes blood type, Rh, and an antibody screen?
• In sickle cell disease, an elevated reticulocyte count with splenomegaly most likely indicates which complication?
• Toxic doses of ibuprofen start at which mg/kg/day?
• What is the imaging modality of choice for epididymitis?
• In heat emergencies, ICU admission is most likely required for which scenario?
• During upper-extremity wound assessment, which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the little finger?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with rhabdomyolysis?
• Which statement is not a typical factor used to diagnose diabetic ketoacidosis?
• During the workup for hypothermia, which imaging is used to assess for infection or aspiration?
• Which drug is commonly used as a pre-treatment during RSI to blunt sympathetic response and reduce risk during intubation?
• Which scenario requires admission for pyelonephritis?
• In adults, the anterior chest represents what percent of body surface area when estimating burns?
• Which federal law requires that anyone arriving at an emergency department be stabilized and treated regardless of insurance status or ability to pay?
• Which symptom is characteristic of frostbite?
• Which sign is negative in testicular torsion and positive in epididymo-orchitis?
• Which step in wound management involves removal of foreign bodies or hair?
• An eyelid wound with ptosis should be referred.
• Which is a typical feature of adrenal crisis?
• What is the treatment for spider bites?
• Disposition largely based on for near-drowning?
• Is cardiac monitoring indicated in a healthy person who has been tasered?
• Which burn is described as waxy, leathery and lifeless, with death of all skin layers?
• What is the primary treatment for rhabdomyolysis?
• A class II hemorrhage is a loss of what percent?
• In urgent transfusion management, which test checks compatibility between the patient and donor blood?
• Which of the following is part of initial management for urinary stones?
• Which shift on the oxygen affinity curve increases the affinity for O2?
• Which topical agent is commonly used for minor burns but should be avoided on the face due to staining?
• Which of the following is an indication for packed red blood cell transfusion?
• Which statement best describes the straight leg raise test in the context of disc herniation?
• Which complication should be checked for in lightning injuries during the work-up?
• After controlling bleeding, what is the next immediate step in wound evaluation?
• HUS is often preceded by which event?
• Which diagnostic test should be used to evaluate urethral injury in penile fracture?
• Which of the following is a sympatholytic effect of opioids?
• What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?
• Clinical features of myxedema coma include which of the following?
• What is the treatment for scabies?
• What is the treatment for pre-renal renal failure?
• _________ is the most common diving affliction and is caused by the direct mechanical effects of pressure.
• Which nerve is tested by sensation at the volar tip of the little finger?
• What is the most common bacteria to cause pyelonephritis?
• A UTI can present as either acute _______ or acute ________